erroradamstwo

Is There A Contradiction
Between Acts 2:38 and Matthew 28:19,20?
Number 5

Bro. Robert Adams has put some material together in a book. On page 5 he says, "If you would like to respond to these writings, you may do so by mailing your comments to Robert Adams 4196 Hwy. 805 Jenkins, Ky. 41537". Thanks Bro. Adams for giving us permission to respond to what you have written.

In this book Bro. Adams said, "We publish a Bulletin under the name BIBLE BREAK PUBLICATIONS AND TRACTS...If you would like to receive it on a monthly basis, send us your home address, and we will be delighted to send it to you". Bro. Adams, you will find my name and address at the end of this tract. Since you will be delighted to send it to me, I will also be delighted to receive it. It will give me an opportunity to expose your false teaching. I will make you an offer. I will send you the names and addresses of all the members of the congregation where I preach, if you will send me the names and addresses of all the members of the congregation where you preach. If you believe you have the truth, and no one can prove you wrong, then you will send me the names and addresses. I predict you will not send them. I predict you will return this tract to me, just like you did last time, because you cannot answer what I am going to write. You cannot answer this material, because you do not have the truth. I will show you the fallacy of your arguments, hoping and praying that you will see the truth and repent. I know it will not be easy for you to see you are wrong about teaching a "baptismal formula" of words that must be said while baptizing someone. I love your soul, therefore I will chastise you with the truth, hoping and praying that you will see the light of the glorious gospel of Jesus Christ.

GALILEE VERSUS JERUSALEM

Bro. Adams asked the question: "Are you a member of a church that was born out of Galilee, or of the Church that was born in Jerusalem?" Would this not mean Jesus built two churches? It was the teaching of Jesus, both in Galilee and Jerusalem, wasn't it? He argues that there is a difference between what Jesus taught in Galilee, and what Jesus taught through Peter on the day of Pentecost. I maintain there is no difference. Jesus did not contradict Himself. Neither did Peter contradict Jesus Christ. If Peter did contradict Jesus Christ, would you not rather take what Jesus, the Son of God says, over what Peter a mortal man says??? The Commission Jesus gave in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20) is no different from the Commission Jesus gave in Jerusalem (Lk. 24:46, 47). Bro. Adams says, "Did you know that there were yet forty days from the time that Jesus gave His disciples the commission of Matthew 28:18-20 until He ascended back to the Father, Mark 16:19 and Luke 24:51"? Bro. Adams is assuming something he cannot prove. He is assuming Jesus left Jerusalem to go to Galilee the same day he arose from the dead, which he cannot prove. He is also assuming Jesus gave the Commission of Mt. 28 just as soon as He reached Galilee, which he cannot prove. Jesus could have given the Commission of Mt. 28 the day before He left Galilee to come back to Jerusalem. The truth of the matter is, Jesus did not go to Galilee the day he arose from the dead. We read of Jesus meeting with His disciples in Jerusalem the night after His resurrection (Lk. 24:13-40). According to John, Jesus was still in Jerusalem eight days later, before He went to Galilee (John 20:19-29). "Then after these things Jesus showed himself again to the disciples at the sea of Tiberias.." (John 21:1). This proves Jesus did not spend forty days in Galilee before returning to Jerusalem to ascend back to Heaven. If Bro. Adams could prove Jesus gave the Commission of Mt. 28 the first day he entered Galilee, after His resurrection, it would not do away with the ridiculous absurdity of his position. It is just as ridiculous to teach Jesus contradicted Himself within a period of 40 days as it would be to think He contradicted Himself within a period of two days. The fact is Bro. Adams has Jesus contradicting Himself. How can Bro. Adams believe Jesus is the Son of God, while having Him contradict Himself? What difference would it make whether it is 40 days or 2 days? If Jesus contradicted Himself, He cannot be the Son of God! Not only does Bro. Adams have Jesus contradicting Himself between the Commission of Mt. 28:19, 20, and the Commission of Lk. 24:46, 47; he also has Jesus contradicting the Holy Spirit, at least within fifty days, by making a contradiction between Mt. 28:19, 20 and Acts 2:38. Peter was being guided by the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost (Jno. 16:13). The Holy Spirit was not speaking of Himself (Jno. 16:13). When the Spirit came He would bring to their remembrance all things Jesus had taught them (Jno. 14:26). Jesus said: "whatsoever I have said unto you" (Jno. 14:26). This would include what Jesus spoke to them in the great commission in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20). Jesus said: "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak" (Jno. 12:49). According to Jesus, God gave him the commandment He spake to the Apostles in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20). If, according to Robert Adams, this commandment God gave to Jesus in Mt. 28:19, 20 is different from the commandment God gave Peter in Acts 2:38; then God contradicted Himself. According to Bro. Adams, Jesus commanded the Apostles to baptize one way in Mt. 28:19, and another way in Acts 2:38. This would mean the Bible contradicts itself! How can Bro. Adams believe in a book that contradicts itself? How can he serve a God that he believes contradicts Himself? God either contradicts Himself, or else Bro. Adams is wrong for contending for a formula of words that must be said while baptizing someone. Bro. Adams believes both Mt. 28:19 and Acts 2:38 contain formulas of words to be said while baptizing someone. Both passages would tell what words were to be said while baptizing someone, if Bro. Adams is right. If he is right the two passages contradict one another. There is no way you can harmonize the two passages if you believe they contain a formula of words to be said while baptizing someone. You would have to accept one and reject the other, if these passages contain a formula of words to be said while baptizing someone. Bro. Adams has chosen to accept Acts 2:38 and reject Mt. 28:19. He has chosen a position which makes God talk out of both sides of His mouth, and contradict Himself within 50 days. Bro. Adams tries to get out of his dilemma by saying: "the only way we could receive the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost in our baptism was to receive the fullness of the Godhead in the name of Jesus Christ..." In another place in his book he says: "all of the gospel of Christ plainly tells us that these names were brought into the church in the name of Jesus Christ (Acts 4:12 and Colossians 2:9-10". It is true that in Jesus dwells all the fulness of the godhead bodily (Col. 2:9). However, this does not help his case. He still believes we have two formulas of words required to be said while baptizing someone. He thus makes the two passages contradict themselves. There is no way he can make them harmonize with his position about a baptismal formula. As long as he believes the passages tell you what to say when baptizing someone, and not what to do when baptizing someone, he will have this problem. There is no way he can harmonize the two passages if they tell us what to say while baptizing someone. The truth of the matter is the passages tell us what to do while baptizing. If I baptize someone in the name of Jesus Christ, I have baptized him in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; because they all have the same name, which is the same word, or doctrine (Rev. 19:13; Acts 4:12). It is not what we say, when baptizing someone, that is important. It is what we do when baptizing someone that counts. If I baptize him in the name of Jesus Christ he will be saved. If saying, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" is some magic that saves him; then all those in the Pentecostal Jesus Only church are saved, and thus really members of the true church of Jesus Christ. If not, Bro. Adams, please tell us why not! I predict you will be as silent as the tomb on this.

In Acts 2:38, Peter not only taught us to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of our sins. He also taught us to repent in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of our sins. The word and, in that passage, is a co-ordinating conjunction that joins two phrases together. Repentance is something to be done, in the name of Jesus Christ; just as baptism is something to be done, in the name of Jesus Christ. Both are to be done "for the remission of sins". Therefore, if it is necessary for the preacher to say I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins, in order for sins to be remitted; then it would also be necessary for the sinner to say I repent in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of my sins, in order for his sins to be forgiven. If not, then Bro. Adams, please tell us why not! I predict he will be as silent as the tomb in telling us "why not"!
Bro. Adams, I have a "death blow" to your Galilee versus Jerusalem position. Please turn to the sermon Peter preached to the house of Cornelius. Look at Acts 10:34-37. Peter said, "Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him. The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all:) That word I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John Preached..." Bro. Adams, did you notice, the words began from Galilee. The word that was preached "throughout all Judaea" to the Jews, began in Galilee. Yes, Bro. Adams, the message Peter preached in Jerusalem, on the day of Pentecost, about what to do to be saved "Began in Galilee". The baptism Peter taught in Acts 2:38 was first taught by our Lord in Mt. 28:19 in Galilee. There is no contradiction between the baptism in Galilee and the baptism in Jerusalem, because neither passage contains a formula of words to be said while baptizing someone. Bro. Adams, your readers are going to catch on to your perversions of Scripture. They will see your position which makes the Bible contradict itself. This may not bother you, but it will surely bother them!

BRO. ADAMS'S ARGUMENTS ABOUT THE WORD OF THE LORD
GOING FORTH FROM JERUSALEM

In many of Bro. Adams Bible Break Publications, as well as the book he has compiled together; he talks about the word going forth from Jerusalem. He refers to Isa. 2:2-3 and other Old Testament prophets about the "word which would go forth from Jerusalem". He keeps saying, it is the word that goes forth from Jerusalem and not the word which went forth from Galilee. The truth of the matter is, there is no difference in the word that went forth from Jerusalem and the word that went forth from Galilee. It is the word of the Lord, both in Galilee and in Jerusalem. And may I emphasize there is no word of the Lord about a baptismal formula either in Galilee, or Jerusalem. In both Galilee and Jerusalem the word of the Lord is the Gospel of Jesus Christ which is the power of God unto salvation (Rom. 1:16). The message in Galilee and the message in Jerusalem is a message about Jesus, the Son of God coming into this world to die on the cross and to shed His blood to remit our sins. It was a message that was to be preached in all of the world (Mt. 28:19, 20). It was a message, the same message, to both Jews and Gentiles. Peter said this message began in Galilee, after the baptism which John preached (Acts 10:37). The message began in Galilee, but the Apostles were to return to Jerusalem to be endued with Power from on high (Acts 1:1-5), in order that the word of the Lord could go forth from Jerusalem, as Isaiah prophesied (Isa. 2:2-3). There was no difference in the message that "began in Galilee" (Acts 10:37) and the message that went forth from Jerusalem (Isa. 2:2-3). There is no difference in being baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost (Mt. 28:19) and being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ (Acts 2:38). These three are one (I John 5:7). Bro. Adams, if you are baptized as the Father taught, you will be baptized as the Son and the Holy Spirit teaches. Bro. Adams, it's what the sinner does and not what the preacher says, that saves the sinner. Jesus no where told the preacher what to say while baptizing someone. In every case of baptism the sinner is told what to do. The words that Jesus spoke in Mt. 28:19, 20 were the words the Father gave Him (John 12:49). The words the apostle Peter spoke in Acts 2:38 were the words the Holy Spirit gave him (Jno. 16:13). The Holy Spirit did not speak of Himself, but what ever he heard from the Father (Jno. 16:13). Please stop making God contradict Himself. This is a terrible thing for you to do! It is sad, bro. Adams, but all you can see in the word of the Lord that goes forth from Jerusalem (Isa. 2:2-3) is a baptismal formula, as you pervert (Acts 2:38). You pervert it by getting words to be said while baptizing someone, and not something that the sinner does in order to be saved.

SEE HOW BRO. ADAMS RULES OUT MT. 28:19,20

Under the heading "The Veil Of Matthew 28:19", in his book, Bro. Adams says, "God didn't inspire this to be in the church, because He revealed it by His Spirit for Matthew to write approximately thirty five years after the church had been established". This is listed on page 6, but it is not page 6 in his book. Bro. Adams bound a lot of articles from various sources, he has written into one book. Therefore it is difficult to tell you where you can fine the quotations I am giving. His argument is: we can get rid of what he calls "The Veil Of Matthew 28:19", because it was not written for approximately thirty five years after the church was established. What he really means is we can get rid of Mt. 28:19, 20. If his logic is accurate, we can also get rid of what some consider to be the veil of Mt. 18:15-18 in the same way. There is just as much a veil in one passage as in the other. In Mt. 18 Jesus taught his Apostles what the church should practice after the church was established. If your brother sins against you, you are to go to him pointing out his sin. If he will not hear you, you are to take one or two Christians with you. If he still will not hear, you are to tell it to the church. If he will not hear the church, he is to be counted as a publican and a heathen. However, according to Bro. Adams, you cannot do this, because this was not inspired for Matthew to write until approximately thirty five years after the church was established. If Bro. Adams can get rid of Matthew 28:19 with such logic, he can get rid of the entire book of Matthew, because none of it was written until approximately thirty five years after the church was established. Bro. Adams, this is brilliant. This argument really is smart! It sure is sensible! Since it is so brilliant, I wonder if it will work on the rest of the New Testament? The book of I Thessalonians was the first book written, that makes up the New Testament. This book was written about 52 or 53 A.D. The church was established in 33 A.D. This would mean the first book of the New Testament was written about 19 years after the church was established. Thus, according to bro. Adam's logic, Peter did not have access to any of the New Testament, on the day of Pentecost! With Bro. Adam's brilliant logic, we cannot use the book of I Thessalonians. What about the book of Acts with Bro. Adam's favorite verse (Acts 2:38)? Guess what? The book of Acts was not written until about 75 A.D. This means the book of Acts was written about 42 years after the church was established. Bro. Adams, what a wonderful argument. We can't use Mt. 28:19, because it was written about thirty-five years after the church was established. Neither can we use Acts 2:38, because it was written about forty-two years after the church was established. Bro. Adams, you know what, with your logic we can't use any of the New Testament, because all of the New Testament was written from 19 years to forty-two years after the church was established. The truth is the Holy Spirit was guiding them into all truth (Jno. 16:13) which would eventually make up all of the New Testament, when God decided to have his word all written down. Bro. Adams, your readers are going to see your perversions!

DOES THE BIBLE TELL US WHAT TO SAY
WHILE BAPTIZING SOMEONE?

Bro. Adams insists over and over again, in his writings, that one must say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins", in order for one to become a member of the true church of Christ and be saved. He says, if this is not said the person goes in the water a dry sinner and comes out a wet sinner. He insists the person who does not have these words said over him while he is being baptized will be lost eternally in hell. Yet in his book on Page 4 (the page number written in ink) he says, "Men tell us today that we are not told what to say when baptizing someone else, and literally that may be so, but then where is our faith?" Isn't that a strange statement! He is admitting that the Bible does not tell us literally what to say when baptizing someone. Yet he insist that if we fail to say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins", the person will be lost eternally in hell. He insists that a certain formula of words must be said for the person to be saved and added to the true church of Jesus Christ. He defines formula as "a group of words that are fixed, that cannot be changed by God or man". He insists that we cannot use the words of Jesus in the great commission, stated in Galilee in Mt. 28:19; but we can use the words of Jesus in the great commission, stated in Lk. 24:47. When we compare Lk. 24:47 and Acts 2:38, we do not find "a group of words that are fixed, that cannot be changed by God or man". The only passage in all of the Bible that contains his "group of words that are fixed, that cannot be changed by God or man" is Acts 2:38! This would mean that Jesus contradicted Himself in these two passages. Also, in view of the fact that Bro. Adams links Lk. 24:47 and Acts 2:38 together, and opposes Mt. 28:19 is proof he believes the passages agree with one another. Now let's examine the two passages. Acts 2:38 tells sinners to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Bro. Adams believes this means the one doing the baptizing must say "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins". Lk. 24:47 tells preachers to preach repentance and remission of sins in the name of Jesus Christ. Does this mean Bro. Adams believes the ones doing the preaching must say "I preach repentance and remission of sins in the name of Jesus Christ"? If Bro. Adams would be consistent this is what he would teach. Bro. Adams, if one cannot baptize in the name of Jesus Christ, without saying, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ", then how can one preach in the name of Jesus Christ without saying, "I preach in the name of Jesus Christ"? If one must say, every time he baptizes someone: "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ"; then why doesn't one have to say, every time he preaches a sermon: "I preach this sermon in the name of Jesus Christ"? Please, Bro. Adams tell us why one is necessary and the other is not! I predict he will be as silent as the tomb about this. You quoted Col. 3:17 in your book. This passage says: "Whatsoever ye do in wordor deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus". Bro. Adams, please tell us why this passage would not require us to say, "in the name of the Lord Jesus" every time we say anything, and every time we do any thing? Do you say, to your wife, "I love you in the name of the Lord Jesus"? Do you love your wife in the name of the Lord Jesus? Are you required to say it in order to do it? Are you required to say, to your wife, "I love you in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ"? If you are required to say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins"; why are you not required to say to your wife, "I love you in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ"? I predict you will be as silent as the tomb and never answer these questions. Why? Because you cannot answer these questions and continue to preach what you are preaching!

"YOU WILL NEVER FIND IT WRITTEN AFTER PENTECOST"

Bro. Adams says, in the article entitled The Veil Of Matthew 28:19: "The veil of Matthew 28:19 has been put upon your heart by the doctrines of men, God has done nothing to put that veil there, you will never find it written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter, this is all the proof you need to know that men are in control of your life, even in what is supposed to be the Church of our Lord". Yes, Bro. Adams, it is your doctrine, the doctrine of a man that has put a veil upon people's hearts. Isn't it strange that Bro. Adams would call the teaching of Christ in Mt. 28:19, 20 the "doctrines of men"? Isn't it also strange that Bro. Adams would call what Jesus taught in Mt. 28:19, 20 a "veil put upon the hearts of the people"? Shame on you Bro. Adams for insulting your Lord who died for you with such accusations. He thinks he has a brilliant point by saying you "will never find it written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". With this kind of "logic" we get rid of many wonderful passages of Scripture. Bro. Adams surprised me that he could write on any subject other than his "baptismal formula" theory. I found in his June 20, 2001 Bible Break Publications an article on marriage and divorce. He wrote some good things, and taught much truth on this subject. However, he failed to point out that what Jesus taught in Mt. 5:31, 32 and Mt. 19:9 "is not found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". Bro. Adams, if you cannot teach Mt. 28:19, 20, because "it is not found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter"; neither can you teach Mt. 5:31, 32 and Mt. 19:9, because "it is not found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". Bro. Adams, your brilliant argument! Got you into trouble. There are many good lessons Jesus taught in the sermon on the Mount (Mt. 5-7) that are not "found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". I think of one exception i.e. "Swear not at all" (Mt. 5:34; James 5:12). Bro. Adams can't preach John 4:24 either, because this wonderful teaching "is not found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". I could write a book, listing all the wonderful passages, found in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, that Bro. Adams cannot teach, because they are "not found written in the Law of Christ that began at Pentecost nor thereafter". This is the kind of problem we get into, when we try to get rid of a passage of Scripture we do not like. Bro. Adams hates Mt. 28:19, 20 with a passion!

In the May 10, 2001 Bible Break Publications, Bro. Adams says, "Why do you suppose Peter didn't remember the words from Galilee that men are remembering in baptism today"? Bro. Adams, Peter did remember the words from Galilee. Just because he did not quote them on the Day of Pentecost, does not mean he did not remember them. Peter said, "The word which God sent unto the Children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (He is Lord of all:) That word, I say, ye know which was published throughout all Judea, and BEGAN FROM GALILEE, AFTER THE BAPTISM WHICH JOHN PREACHED". Notice the word that was "published throughout all Judea" was preached by Peter on the day of Pentecost, but it did not begin in Jerusalem, it "BEGAN FROM GALILEE, AFTER THE BAPTISM WHICH JOHN PREACHED".

In this same May 10, 2001 Bible Break Publications, Bro. Adams says, "How can a man say its not about what is said and go to sleep at night? After you have preached to lost souls that they must be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for remission of sins, how are these going to do what you have preached to them if you don't tell them as they are being baptized? God has told you what to say in baptism as surely as He has told you the name to preach and the man that says different is a man that should have all his rights taken as a gospel preacher, or as a perverter I might say. The name of Jesus Christ is above every name when it comes to the forgiveness of sins in baptism". Bro. Adams, here are some more questions you need to answer. How can a man go to sleep at night, if he does not say I am preaching in the name of Jesus, when he preaches? If a man must say I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ; then he must also say I preach this sermon to you in the name of Jesus Christ. Bro. Adams, if not why not? Is it any more important to baptize in the name of Jesus Christ, then it is to preach in the name of Jesus Christ? Bro. Adams, if a man cannot know he is being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, if you do not tell him; then how can he know you are preaching in the name of Christ, if you do not tell him? There is no logic in your arguments! Of course he knows from what you teach him. He knows you are preaching in the name of Jesus Christ, because you give him book, chapter, and verse. He knows you are baptizing him in the name of Jesus Christ, because you give him book, chapter, and verse (Mt. 28:19, 20 and Acts 2:38). I predict Bro. Adams will be as silent as the tomb by failing to answer these questions!

Then Bro. Adams said, "No apostle preached Matthew 28:19, and if it wasn't preached, it wasn't made known to Israel or to the Gentiles in any other way. If it isn't written, don't play with fire, God is a consuming fire, don't play with God". Bro. Adams, this is really smart! Matthew was one of the Apostles. He is the one who wrote down the words of Jesus from Galilee. I would say what you have written down is what you are preaching. What Matthew wrote down is a part of the Scriptures. This is what all of the apostles preached. They wrote what they preached, and they preached what they wrote. They preached it for at least nineteen years, before they wrote any of it. The truth is, it was preached and it was made known to Israel and to the Gentiles. Peter made it known to the Gentiles in the home of Cornelius (Acts 10:37). It "was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached" (Acts 10:37). Bro. Adams, you are playing with fire, (Jer. 23:29), when you play with God's word. Bro. Adams, thou art the man!

In the May 19, 2001 Bible Break Publication, Bro. Adams asked the question: "Words in red or words by the spirit, which adds you to the Lord's church"? Isn't this amazing? The words spoken in Mt. 28:19, by Jesus Christ were words in red. The words spoken by Peter in Acts 2:38, are in black. According to Robert Adams, it's the words spoken by Peter, which are in black letters, that adds you to the Lord's church. Bro. Adams, it's not words that add us to the Lord's church. The Lord adds men to the church (Acts 2:47). The Lord adds to the church those who are being saved. Isn't it strange? Bro. Adams believes the Lord adds men to the church that believe and do what Peter said (Acts 2:38); but the Lord does not add men to the church who believe and do what the Lord said (Mt. 28:19). Bro. Adams says, "words in red or black". It is either one or the other, according to him. They both cannot be saying the same thing, according to him. According to him, Jesus said one thing, and Peter said another. We should obey Peter rather than the Lord! Who can believe it??? Apparently some do! He went on to say, "Will they be identified in red, or will they be words that came by the Spirit of Truth"? According to him, those words Jesus spoke in red (Mt. 28:19) did not come by the Spirit of Truth! If they did not come from the Spirit of truth, they must have come from the spirit of the devil!

In this same May 19th Bible Break Publication he said, "Words in red that were spoken at Galilee when cited in baptism for remission of sins violates: Isaiah 2:2-3 and Micah 4:1-3. These prophets spoke by the will of God, (2 Peter 1:21) These red words violates the promise that Jesus made to the disciples in John 14:26 and John 16;13. These words in red from Galilee violates the prayer that Jesus prayed for how the world would be saved, I pray not for these alone, but for them also which shall believe in me through their word, (John 17:20). These words from the apostles would become the greatest words that were spoken for the forgiveness of sins and for adding to the Lord's church. Words in red from Galilee violates every word preached by the apostles for conversion during the setting up of the early church". My dear brother, when I read what you said, it makes me tremble and sends chills down my spine. I have never heard an atheist, skeptic, or agnostic attack the words spoken by my dear Savior Jesus Christ like your words do. You are saying that the words of Jesus Christ our Savior violate every word preached by all of the apostles and all of the Old Testament prophets. How dare you attack the one who died for you, as you do in this statement? "Repent therefore of this thy wickedness, and pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee. For I perceive that thou art in the gall of bitterness, and in the bond of iniquity" (Acts 8:22, 23). Will you not answer as Simon did? "Pray ye to the Lord for me, that none of these things which ye have spoken come upon me" (Acts 8:24). Bro. Adams, there is no contradiction between Jesus Christ and the Apostles and prophets, of the Old Testament, concerning the word of the Lord going forth from Jerusalem. It was the same word that was spoken in Galilee. In fact Peter said so (Acts 10:37). The word that Isaiah and Micah said would go forth from Jerusalem, is the word that "began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached" (Acts 10:37). In the April 27, 2001 Bible Break Publication, Bro. Adams said, "The baptism in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, whence was it? From heaven or of men? I have written to you for some time now that Galilee was not the place, nor does Galilee provide words that will establish the Church in your life."He went on to say, "Where did the apostles baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost? Did they obey those specific words that Jesus spoke to them in Galilee? Find the place". Bro. Adams is asking us to find the place where the Apostles used those words as a formula of words to be said when they baptized someone. I know of no one who believes they are a formula of words to be said, when baptizing, except Bro. Adams and his followers and the Jesus Only People. Bro. Adams, you need to find the place where the Apostles used the words of Acts 2:38 as a formula of words to be said when baptizing someone, as you and the Jesus Only People do. Jesus said, "My doctrine is not mine, but His that sent me" (John 7:16). The doctrine Jesus taught in Mt. 28:19 is thus the doctrine of God. Would that not mean it is from heaven and not from men? Yes, the Apostles baptized in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. I am not saying they used this as a formula of words. I am simply saying the Apostles did what Jesus told them to do, because Jesus was with them all ways, as He promised (Mt. 28:19, 20). Peter says, "The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ; (He is Lord of all:) That word, I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached" (Acts 10:36, 37). The word which was preached in Jerusalem and throughout all Judaea began in Galilee. I am not saying the Apostles said a formula of words over the people they baptized. I am simply saying they did what Jesus told them to do, i.e. baptized in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost (Mt. 28:19), because the Lord was with them, fulfilling the promise he made to them in Mt. 28:20, proving they did what the Lord told them to do, i.e. they went into all the world teaching all nations baptizing them in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. I don't know whether the Apostles said anything while baptizing people. Neither does Bro. Adams. He is making a law God has not made. He is talking nonsense. He is blaspheming our Lord Jesus Christ, by saying what He taught is not from Heaven, but from men!

"DON'T DO WHAT I DO, DO WHAT I SAY"

In the June 7, 2001 Bible Break Publication, Bro. Adams heads his article with the statement "Don't do what I do, do what I say". When I first read this, I thought of a preacher, who is now dead, who did some preaching in the area where Bro. Adams lives. I could understand why that preacher would make such a statement. He had children by a woman, other than his wife. He had children by this woman before he married her. He married this second woman before he divorced his wife, thus being guilty of bigamy. He then divorced his wife claiming to have a Scriptural reason. I can understand why a preacher like that would make such a statement. We will try to understand why Bro. Adams would make such a statement. Jesus certainly could not make such a statement, because Jesus practiced what He preached (Acts 1:1). This being true, Jesus said what He did, and did what He said. He begins his article by saying, "For many years men have taken upon themselves to call over those being baptized the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost for remission of sins". According to the logic of Bro. Adams, those preachers are doing the very thing he says in the heading of this article. He thinks Mt. 28:19 contains a formula of words which cannot be said, if the sinner is going to be saved. Jesus never baptized anyone (personally) in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. However, this is what Jesus said for the Apostles to do. "Go teach all nations baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost". Therefore, Bro. Adams, don't do what Jesus did, but do what Jesus said. Baptizing in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost is not what Jesus did, but it is certainly what Jesus said! Bro. Adams went on to say, "What happened to the seven sons of Sceva should serve as an example in what men are doing with a commission that was not revealed in the time that the Church was being set up. To the evil spirits that had taken control of the bodies of the people, these exorcists took upon themselves to call over them; We adjure you by Jesus whom Paul preacheth, And the evil spirit answered and said, Jesus I know, and Paul I know; but who are you, (Acts 19:13-15). When men call over those being baptized, The name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost for the remission of sins, Jesus might be saying, Peter I know and Paul I know, but who are you...". Bro. Adams, this is brilliant. If Jesus were to do something like this, the Apostles would say: We are your Apostles, your Ambassadors baptizing people just as you told us to, and we are simply saying what we are doing! If it were me, I would say, I am your humble servant doing what you said should be done even until the end of the world, in order for You to be with me, and I am simply saying what I am doing. (Mt. 28:19, 20). I have the authority to say what I am doing (Col. 3:17). Jesus authorized me to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost (Mt. 28:19, 20). Jesus authorized me to say what I am doing (Col. 3:17). He authorized me to preach in His name (Lk. 24:47). He authorized me to baptize in His name (Acts 2:38). I am not required to say what I am doing, but I have the right to say what I am doing. When I baptize someone, I have the right to say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of your sins", because that is what I am doing (Acts 2:38). When I baptize someone, I have the right to say, "I baptize you in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost for the remission of your sins", because that is what I am doing (Mt. 28:19, 20). I do not have the authority to make the Bible contradict itself, and neither do you. The seven sons of Sceva are condemned, not for calling over someone the name of Jesus Christ; but for attempting to do something they were not authorized to do, claiming they were authorized by calling over a man the name of Jesus whom Paul preached. If there was something magical about calling over someone the name of Jesus Christ, as they did, the unclean spirits would have gone out of the man. This would be in harmony with your teaching. If calling over someone the name of Jesus Christ in baptism was something magical, then those Jesus Only People baptize would be saved. You teach the same thing the Jesus Only People teach about a formula of words which must be said!

In this same article, Bro. Adams said, "Men say, we are not told what to say when baptizing another, that is pure (propaganda) if I may say the word in a more lightly mannered way. The man that makes that statement and those that follow him is no more than such". I suppose he means we are no more than propagandist. Bro. Adams, why didn't you give us the verse where we are told what to say? Instead of accusing us of propaganda, just give us the verse where we are told what to say while baptizing someone! In every passage, we are told what to do while baptizing someone, and the sinner is told what to do while being baptized! No where does the Bible tell the sinner to say "I am repenting in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of my sins". No where does it tell the preacher to say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins". This is what the sinner and preacher are told to do. Nothing is said about what they are required to say. There would be nothing wrong with either the sinner, or preacher saying what he is doing, but the Bible does not require us to say what we are doing. Also, saying it does not make it so. If it does Jesus Only People are saved, and members of the Lord's church. If not, Bro. Adams, please tell us why not! I predict he will be as silent as the tomb. He will not tell us why not!

In this same article, Bro. Adams says, "Why can't you obey God rather than men, (Acts 5:29). The Lord is going to tear up your playhouse in that day, and God has already torn it up. Your playhouse is the place you identify as the Church of Christ where you go to worship. It was not built upon the foundation of the prophets and the apostles, it was built upon commandments, the traditions of men. As the books are opened in that day, what you have obeyed will not be written in the law that produced the Church at Jerusalem in the first century". I do obey God rather than men. It was God who gave the great commission in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20). God the Father called Him God (Heb. 1:8, 9). I would not want to be in your shoes at the judgment, when you stand before Christ, having said what He commanded was the word of men! Where I worship is not a playhouse. If it is, Jesus built this playhouse. It is built upon the foundation of Christ (I Cor. 3:10, 11). You make a law God has not made. God no where told us what to say, while baptizing someone. If anyone has a playhouse, it must be you. What will Jesus do with you when you stand before His judgment seat (2 Cor. 5:10) having taught what he said in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20) is the doctrine of man?

In the June 18, 2001 Bible Break Publication, Bro. Adams says, "Remember John 13:20 as Jesus taught the disciples during the last supper; �He that receiveth whomsoever I send receiveth me, and he that receiveth me receiveth Him that sent me'". Bro. Adams, will you please prove to us that the supper in John 13 was the "last supper"? The "last supper" was the Passover Supper, when Jesus instituted His Supper, The Lord's Supper (Mt. 26:17-29); (Mk. 14:12-25); and (Lk. 22:1-30). In all three of these passages, the Bible plainly tells us it was the Passover Supper, thus the "last supper", Jesus ate with the Apostles before He died. You will find in John that the supper, where Jesus washed feet, was not the "last supper", but some other supper prior to the Passover (Jno. 13:1, 29). There is nothing in John 13 about the institution of the Lord's Supper. The Lord's Supper is not mentioned in John 13. The Passover is mentioned twice in Verses 1 and 39; but in each case it was at some future time. Feet washing was practiced at the supper of John 13, and the Lord's Supper was not mentioned. However, at the "last Supper" there is no feet washing mentioned, but the Lord's Supper is definitely mentioned. He has referred numbers of times to the statement in John 13, "He that receiveth whomsoever I send receiveth me, and he that receiveth me receiveth Him that sent me". Bro. Adams does not believe the Apostles did what Jesus told them to do in Mt. 28:19. He does not believe they taught all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Therefore, Jesus must have told the Apostles to do something the Father did not authorize. This would mean that whoever receives the Son would not receive the Father, according to Bro. Adams. The Father did not authorize Jesus to tell them to "go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (Mt. 28:19, 20). Bro. Adams says the Apostles did not baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. He says they baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Would this not mean they rejected Jesus and accepted the Father? Either, Bro. Adams does not do what the Apostles did, or else the Apostles did not do what Jesus told them to do, which would mean Jesus did not tell the Apostles to do what the Father gave to Him, according to Bro. Adam's position. Either one is bad, bad, bad. I think Bro. Adams is the one who does not receive those whom Jesus sent, because he does not believe what Jesus told the Apostles to do in Mt. 28:19. Does it sound confusing to you? It really gets to be a mess and very confusing, when you make Jesus and the Father contradict one another. It's also confusing when you make Jesus Christ and the Apostles contradict one another. Oh, Bro. Adams, what a tangled web you do weave!

Bro. Adams said, "You can't get by the words of Matthew 28:19 because they are words of the Lord? Is this your problem, don't you know that the words of the Spirit, (The Holy Ghost) and the words that Peter preached are the words of the Lord? Don't you know that Jesus left nothing out of Acts 2:38 that would condemn the people in their baptism? Don't you know that in Him dwelleth, or liveth, all the fullness of the Godhead bodily, And you are complete in His name as you are being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ? (Colossians 2:9-10)". My dear brother, I don't want to "get by" the words of Matthew 28:19, which are the words of the Lord. I don't want to "get by" the word of the Lord, I want to do the word of the Lord. You are the one who wants to "get by" what Jesus said do, and you have explained to us how you do that, by perverting Colossians 2:9, 10.Yes, Bro. Adams, I know that the words of the Holy Spirit and the words of Peter, in Acts 2:38, are the words of the Lord. I also know that the words of the Holy Spirit and Matthew, in Mt. 28:19, are the words of the Lord Jesus Christ, who spoke them. I also know that they are the words of God the Father (Jno. 12:49). I know that Peter left nothing out of Acts 2:38 that would condemn your soul. I also know that Jesus Christ added nothing in Mt. 28:19 that will condemn your soul. I know that there is perfect harmony between Acts 2:38 and Mt. 28:19. I know it is the word of the Father, which He gave unto the Son, which the Son gave to the Apostles (Jno. 12:49; Jno. 16:13; 14:26). Bro. Adams, I also know that you changed Colossians 2:9-10. You say "complete in His name". The Bible says, "complete in Him". We are not complete in Him until after we are baptized into Him, because we are baptized into Him (Gal. 3:27; Rom. 6:3). When the preacher says; as you require, not God: "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins", the sinner is not complete in Him. Saying your magic formula of words is not what puts him into Christ where he is complete!!! If it does Jesus Only People are complete in Him. Numbers of times, our dear brother, perverts Colossians 2:9. He teaches that "in Him" means in the name (title) Jesus, stated while baptizing someone, "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily". He thinks there is a formula of words to be said while baptizing someone, in this passage. What he is doing is grasping at straws to try to justify his position which is really additions to the word of God! The truth is the Greek word (Pleroma) is translated "fulness", not only in Col. 2:9, but also in Eph. 1:23. Col. 2:9 says, "In Him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily". Eph. 1:22, 23 says, "The church, which is His body, the fulness of Him, that filleth all in all". If the fulness of the Godhead bodily dwells in Jesus (meaning the name or title Jesus; then the fulness of Christ dwells in the church (meaning the name or title church. If our dear brother is right, and we need to exalt the name (title) Jesus over the name (title) Father, Son and Holy Ghost; then to be consistent, our dear brother would teach we need to exalt the name (title) church over the name (title) Jesus. With this logic? Adams makes Jesus more important than the Father, and the Holy Ghost. Would He not also make the church more important than Jesus? I hope by now his followers can see how ridiculous his position is. The truth is, Jesus is the fulness of the Godhead, which means the only way we can have access to the Father and the Holy Ghost is through Jesus. The truth also is, the church is the fulness of Jesus Christ, which means the only way we can have access to Jesus Christ is through the church. You cannot come to the Father, except through Jesus Christ. Neither can you come to Jesus Christ, except through the church. The only way, our dear brother, can get a baptismal formula in Col. 2:9 is through perversion and wishful thinking.

DO YOU STAND IN GALILEE,
OR DO YOU STAND IN JERUSALEM?

In the June 26, 2001 Bible Break Publication Bro. Adams asked, "Do you stand in Galilee or do you stand in Jerusalem"? This question proves Bro. Adams thinks it is an either or position. He thinks it has to be one or the other. He thinks the two passages contradict one another. I accept both passages. I believe what was preached in Jerusalem began in Galilee. The word, began in Galilee (Acts 10:36, 37). The preaching of the word, began in Jerusalem (Acts 1:6-8; 2:14-47; Isa. 2:2, 3; Micah 4:1, 2). The preaching of the gospel, the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, began in Jerusalem (I Cor. 15:1-6; Acts 2:22-36). The word "which was published throughout all Judaea, "began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached" (Acts 10:37). It is the same word, or message in both Galilee and Jerusalem. Jesus gave the message to the Apostles in Galilee. The Apostles preached or published it throughout all Judaea, beginning in Jerusalem. It is the same gospel in both Galilee and Judaea. Jesus explained to the Apostles, in Galilee, that He would die, be buried, and the third day arise again. They worshiped Him there (Mt. 28:17). No doubt Jesus talked with them about the message (word) which they are to preach, beginning in Jerusalem (Acts 10:36, 37), because Peter said this message began in Galilee. When Jesus gave the great commission, in Galilee, He said "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (Mt. 28:19, 20). The word "therefore" proves Jesus had given them instructions about the message they were to preach in order to carry out this commission. The word therefore is defined: "as a result of this or that; for this or that reason; consequently; hence: often used with conjunctive force" (Webster's New World Dictionary). Thus, "as a result of this or that" teaching, or instruction Jesus gave them in Galilee, they are told to "go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (Mt. 28:19, 20). Therefore, meaning "for this or that reason" that Jesus has given to the Apostles, in His instructions in Galilee, they are to "go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (Mt. 28:19, 20). Also, we need to notice the statement our Lord made: "Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you" (Mt. 28:20). Notice, "I have commanded you" is past tense. This means Jesus had already commanded them what to teach, while they were in Galilee, before they got to Jerusalem (Acts 10:36, 37). When the Apostles reached Jerusalem, Jesus baptized them with the Holy Ghost (Acts 1:4, 5; Acts 2:1-4). The Comforter, having now come, guides them into all truth (John 16:13). The Holy Ghost is teaching them all things, and bringing all things, Jesus had said to them, to their remembrance (John 14:26). This would include all things Jesus had taught them in Galilee, including the instructions He had just given them, before He gave them the great commission of (Mt. 28:19, 20). On the Day of Pentecost, and for all time after, the Apostles were teaching people, both Jew and Gentile, to observe all things Jesus had commanded them to teach, including the Great Commission of Mt. 28:19, 20. The Apostles were proceeding to carry out the Great Commission, given to them in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20). They were beginning in Jerusalem to carry out this "great commission", just as the prophets said (Isa. 2:1, 2; Micah 4:1, 2). What began in Jerusalem was not a formula of words to be said, while baptizing someone, as Bro. Adams thinks. This is certainly not what Isaiah and Micah were teaching by inspiration of the Holy Spirit. The word of the Lord that would go forth from Jerusalem is the entire sermon Peter preached. It is the Gospel of Christ which includes certain facts: the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ (I Cor. 15:1-4). It also includes certain commandments: faith, repentance, and baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins (Acts 2:37, 38). The Gospel Peter preached also included certain promises: The forgiveness of sins, and the gift of the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:38, 39). Bro. Adams is wrong. He is teaching error, when he teaches that the prophets Isaiah and Micah are talking about a formula of words, for the preacher to say, while baptizing someone. My dear brother has erred from the truth, and needs to be converted from the error of his way to save his soul from death and hide a multitude of sins (James 5:19, 20). Isaiah and Micah are not talking about what is to be said, when baptizing someone. They are talking about the message which would first be preached. The Gospel of Jesus Christ, in fact, commands, and promises was preached for the first time, in the city of Jerusalem, in fulfilment of the prophesy of Isaiah and Micah. The Apostles are doing what Jesus, in Galilee, instructed them to do. They have begun to carry out the great commission Jesus gave them in Galilee (Mt. 28:19, 20).

Bro. Adams, those who have sincerely followed you in your false teaching, will see the error of your way, when they read this material. I believe most of them are honest. They have accepted your teaching, because they are sincere and want to do what is right. However, when they read this material, and see how you make the Bible contradict itself, they will come back to the Lord. They will see that a man has to be teaching error when he teaches Peter contradicted our Lord who died for us. The very idea to teach that Jesus taught one thing in Galilee, and Peter taught a different doctrine in Jerusalem. Honest people, will come back to the truth, when they find Bro. Adams making a contradiction between what Isaiah said in Isa. 2:1, 2, and what Peter said in Acts 10:36, 37. They will come to the conclusion that there is something wrong when their beloved brother makes the Bible contradict itself. They love you, Bro. Adams, but I am sure they love the Lord more. I love you too, Bro. Adams. This is the reason I am begging you to come back to the truth you once preached. I am begging you to stop teaching a doctrine that makes the Bible contradict itself. This is what Atheists do! Evolutionists, and Agnostics treat the Bible this way! They do so to discredit the Bible, to destroy the word of God. What is your purpose for doing it? Please come back to the truth.

Windell Wiser
16334 Evans Rd.
Athens, Al. 35611

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