Windell Wiser's First Reply

IS THERE A CONTRADICTION BETWEEN
ACTS 2:38 AND MT. 28:19,20?

If the Bible contradicts itself, then the Bible is not reliable. Apparently Bro. Robert Adams of 4196 Hwy. 805, Jenkins, Ky. 41357 thinks it does. I have before me his paper, "Bible Break Publications", the July 10, 2000 issue, which I want to review. I have never met Bro. Adams. I do not know him personally. This is not a personal attack upon him. On the first page of his paper dated July 10, 2000 he said: "Will you open your gospel and by only the gospel prove me to be wrong?" I am fixing to do just exactly what he asked me to do. I hope he will accept the proof given in this tract. James said: "Brethren, if any of you do err from the truth, and one convert him; Let him know, that he which converteth the sinner from the error of his way shall save a soul from death, and shall hide a multitude of sins." (Jas. 5:19, 20) Brethren, consider this question very soberly. How can a person make Matthew contradict Acts and not err from the truth? Bro. Adams, you need to consider this same question very soberly and honestly.
I do not believe there is a contradiction between what Jesus said: "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost&" (Mt. 28:19); and what Peter said: "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 2:38). If there is a contradiction, then we have a real problem. Apparently Bro. Adams thinks there is a contradiction. He said, on page one of the July 10, 2000 paper: "Jesus didn't give men access to Matthew 28:19". If he did not give men access to it, then men have no right to use it. According to him they have a right to use Acts 2:38. Therefore, he must think the statements contradict one another and are not in harmony with one another. One we have access to, and the other we do not. Bro. Adams, if you are right, we have a very serious problem on our hand. I should say, Bro. Adams, you have a very serious problem on your hands. Are you going to do like Martin Luther? Will you attempt to solve your problem like Martin Luther sought to solve his problem? Luther thought James contradicted Paul. James1 said Abraham was justified by works (Jas. 2:21-24). Paul said Abraham was not justified by works (Rom. 4:2, 3). Luther sought to solve his problem by saying the book of James did not belong in the canon of Scripture. In other words, the book of James should not be in the Bible. Bro. Adams, will you solve your problem the same way and tell us the book of Matthew should not be in the Bible? Martin Luther had a problem because he failed to understand James and Paul were talking about two kinds of works. Paul was talking about the kind of works whereby a man would have a right to boast of his salvation, whereas James was talking about works "which God before ordained that we should walk in them" (Eph. 2:10). Jesus and Peter use the word name in two different senses. Bro. Adams fails to understand this, therefore he denies us access to Mt. 28:19, just like Luther denied men access to James 2:21-24. Because you say "Jesus didn't give men access to Matthew 28:19". Bro. Adams, what about the rest of the book of Matthew? Is there anything else in the book of Matthew Jesus did not give us access to? By what authority do you have to tell us Jesus did not give us access to Mt. 28:19??? Was it not Jesus who gave Mt. 28:19? If Jesus will not allow us to use Mt. 28:19, then pray tell us Bro. Adams, who can use Mt. 28:19? Do you mean Jesus told the Apostles to "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost&" (Mt. 28:19) and then deny them access to what he told them to do? Did Jesus tell the Apostles to do something and then not allow them to do what He told them???
Jesus said: "I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak" (Jno. 12:49). Bro. Adams, tell us, did Jesus speak of himself in Mt. 28:19 or is this also a commandment His Father gave him, what he should say, and what he should speak? Did Jesus sin in Mt. 28:19 and speak something without God's permission, and God the Father, through the Holy Spirit, set Peter straight on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2:38?? Bro. Adams, tell us, is this what you believe? Jesus said: "My doctrine is not mine, but His that sent me" (Jno 7:16). Bro. Adams, did Jesus lie? Is Mt. 28:19 an exception? Is Mt. 28:19 the doctrine of Christ and not the doctrine of His Father? On the first page of your July 10, 2000 letter you say: "The purpose of this letter is to alert the mind. Not to make angry, or confused more than the people already are.. There is really no baptism that was inspired of God as the Church was being presented to the world, nor thereafter, to be preached or used in any way in converting the people to Christ by Matthew 28:19". Bro. Adams, you are the one confusing people. Are you saying Mt. 28:19 was not inspired of God? Are you thus saying Jesus spoke His own doctrine here? Are you saying the Father did not give Him permission to say what He said? Are you saying that honest people who "will do His will" (Jno. 17:7) will know that Jesus is now speaking of Himself and seeking His own glory, and is not true here, and there is unrighteousness in Him (Jno. 7:18)? You are the one who is confused and the one who is confusing others.
Possibly you will confuse us more by telling us Matthew made this all up. Possibly you will say Jesus did not say what Matthew tells us in Mt. 28:19. Is this the way you will solve your problem? If we cannot trust Matthew to tell us the truth about what Jesus said in Mt. 28:19, how can we trust him on Mt. 16:18? Matthew is the only writer who said baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Bro. Adams, will you follow Luther's steps and say Matthew ought not to be in the cannon of Scripture? Will you say Matthew ought not to be in our Bibles? I guess you can't preach any more about Jesus's statements in Mt. 16:18, because Matthew is the only one who told us this. If we can't trust Matthew to tell us the truth about what Jesus taught in Mt. 28:19, how can we believe Matthew told us the truth about what Jesus taught in Mt. 16:18? How can we be sure Matthew told us the truth in Mt. 18:15-18? Only Matthew told us Jesus taught this!!! You run into all kinds of problems when you make the Bible contradict itself. The Bible ceases to be the standard and what some preacher thinks becomes the standard. In this case Jesus ceases to be the authority (Mt. 28:19) and Bro. Adams becomes the authority. Bro. Adams puts his trust in his own heart rather than putting his trust in the Bible (Mt. 28:19). He needs to read Proverbs 28:26. He needs to read Jer. 10:23 and allow Jesus Christ and Matthew to direct his steps about baptism.

JESUS ONLY PEOPLE

I have had discussions with people who believe Jesus is the only person in the Godhead. They are referred to as "Jesus only people". These people make similar arguments to those made by Bro. Adams. They think Acts 2:38 is a formula of words to be said when you baptize someone. There is something magic about saying "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ". Bro. Adams's statement on Page 1 of his July 10, 2000 letter: "If someone said to you, there is no baptism in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost as men are telling the people they baptize, would your desire be to open the Bible and prove if this is true, or could it be you are satisfied and will leave the gospel closed?" indicates he believes the same thing "Jesus only" people believe. He must think (Acts 2:38) is a formula of words to be said, and there is something magic about saying the words "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ". I have no objection to someone saying what he is doing when he baptizes someone. I have no objection to baptizing someone in the name of Jesus Christ. In fact that is what Peter told us to do (Acts 2:38). I have no objection to the preacher saying: "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ" when he baptizes someone. I have no objection to the preacher saying what he is doing. Since he is baptizing someone in the name of Jesus Christ, then he can say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ". I have no objection to a preacher doing what Jesus said do in Mt. 28:19. I do not believe Jesus made this up without the Father's permission. Neither do I believe Matthew made this up without the Father's permission, and without repeating exactly what the Lord said with the Father's permission. I have no objection to a preacher saying what he is doing, i.e. "I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit", because he is saying what he is doing with the authority of Jesus Christ behind him (Mt. 28:19). Bro. Adam's problem is he does not understand what "in the name of" means. This is why he makes the two passages contradict themselves. This is why he has to accept one and reject the other. The truth is he does not accept the truth of either one.
The Bible does not give a formula of words to be said when baptizing someone. There is not a passage of Scripture that tells you what to say when you baptize someone. Every passage tells you what to do and not what to say. When preachers tell you what you must say when you baptize someone, they are adding to the word of God. They are going beyond that which is written (2 Jno. 9, 10). Paul said: "Whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus" (Col. 3:17). This means every word I say and every deed I do must be said and done in the name of Jesus Christ. Not only should I baptize in the name of Jesus Christ, I should assemble, pray, sing, give, and partake of the Lord's supper in the name of Jesus Christ. I do not have to say I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ in order to baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ. I do not have to say I assemble in the name of Jesus Christ in order to assemble in the name of Jesus Christ. I do not have to say I pray in the name of Jesus Christ in order to pray in the name of Jesus Christ. I do not have to say I sing, give, and partake of the Lord's Supper in the name of Jesus Christ, in order to sing, give, and partake of the Lord's Supper in the name of Jesus Christ. The Bible teaches us to do all of these things in the name of Jesus Christ. The Bible does not require us to say what we are doing. However, it is alright to say what we are doing. I can say when I baptize someone, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ". However, I do not have to say it in order to do it. I can say when I baptize someone, "I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit", but I do not have to say it in order to do it. I can say "I assemble in the name of Jesus Christ", but I do not have to say it in order to do it. I can say "in the name of Jesus Christ' when I pray, but I do not have to say it in order to do it. I can say "I give in the name of Jesus Christ", but I do not have to say it in order to do it. If you require me to say, "I am preaching to you in the name of Jesus Christ" every time I preach, you make a law God did not make. However, it would be alright for me to tell you I am preaching in the name of Jesus Christ each time I preach. If you tell me I must say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ" each time I baptize someone, you are making a law God did not make. However, it would be alright for me to say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ" each time I baptize someone.
Saying you do something in the name of Jesus Christ doesn't make it so. The seven sons of Sceva tried to cast out an evil spirit by saying , "we adjure you by Jesus whom Paul preacheth" (Acts 19:13). Jesus did not authorize the seven sons of Sceva, to cast out evil spirits, therefore they could not cast them out by Jesus.

WHAT DOES "IN THE NAME OF" MEAN?

Bro. Adams ridicules the idea that in the name of means by the authority of Christ. He says, "this belongs to men and their Greek Lexicons" (Page 2 of his letter). I wonder if Bro. Adams ever uses a dictionary to learn what words mean. Going to Webster to find out what an English word means is no different from going to Thayer to find out what a Greek word means. The New Testament was written in Greek. Peter used a Greek word which is translated name in Acts 2:38. Jesus used a Greek word which is translated name in Mt. 28:19. Bro. Adams please, tell us what's wrong with using a dictionary to find out what words mean? Do you know more than the men who produced the dictionaries? Do you know Greek better than the men who gave us the Lexicons? In this answer, I will pass up what the Dictionaries and Lexicons say. We will just look at the word of God, as it was translated by the Greek scholars of sixteen hundred and eleven. Please look at Acts 5:28 which says: "Did not we straitly command you that ye should not teach in this name? And, behold, ye have filled Jerusalem with your doctrine, and intend to bring this man's "blood upon us". This verse plainly shows that to teach in the name of Jesus means to teach His doctrine. Surely Bro. Adams would not argue that the Apostles' doctrine was not the doctrine of Christ (Acts 2:42; Mt. 10:40). The truth is, the Holy Spirit brought to the remembrance of the Apostles what Jesus taught them (Jno. 14:26). If preaching the name of Christ is preaching the doctrine of Christ, then baptizing in the name of Christ is baptizing in or according to the doctrine of Christ. In Revelation 19:13 "He was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God". When I baptize some one in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, I am baptizing them according to The Word of God. Jesus is the Word that was made flesh and dwelt among us (Jno. 1:1-14). Jesus is the way, the truth and the life (Jno. 14:6). Jesus is that Word Of Life which the Apostles looked upon and their hands handled (1 Jno. 1-3). John said: "There are three that bear record in Heaven, The Father, The Word, and The Holy Ghost: and these three are one" (1 Jno. 5:7). These three are one in that they share the same truth, word, name, and doctrine. The word, truth, or doctrine originated with the Father (Heb. 1:1). This word was spoken through Christ (Jno. 12:49). The same word was spoken by the Holy Spirit (Jno. 14:26; 16:13). They share the same word, doctrine, name, authority. The authority that Jesus has, the Father gave to him (Mt. 28:18). The name that Jesus has, which is above every name, the Father gave to Him (Phil. 2:9, 10). If they all share the same name, then when you are baptized in the name of Jesus you are also baptized in the name of the Father and Holy Ghost.
I have pointed out that being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ in Acts 2:38 means by His authority, word, or doctrine. Jesus had received all power (authority) when he gave the great commission in Mt. 28 and told the Apostles to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost. Did you notice Jesus used the word "name" only one time in that passage. The name of the Father and Son and Holy Ghost is the same name. If you are baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, you are baptized in the name of the Son, because the Son is Jesus Christ. You are also baptized in the name of the Father and Holy Ghost, because they share the same name. "Name" here is not Jesus, Jehovah and Holy Spirit. "Name" is Word (Rev. 19:13), doctrine (Acts 5:28). In Him is their salvation for "there is none other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved" (Acts 4:12). Salvation is not in the name (title) Jesus, but salvation is in the Authority of Christ, the gospel of Christ (Rom. 1:16). Paul determined not to know anything except Christ and Him crucified (1 Cor. 2:2). Phillip began at the same Scripture and preached unto the Eunuch Jesus (Acts 8:35). You do not preach Jesus by saying Jesus over and over again. You preach Jesus by preaching His word. You do not baptize someone in the name of Jesus by simply saying "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ". You baptize him in the name of Jesus when you baptize him as Jesus teaches us to baptize. If you baptize him because he thinks he's already saved, it will not be in the name of Jesus even though you say you are baptizing him in the name of Jesus. If you sprinkle water upon him and say it is in the name of Jesus Christ, you will lie, because it is not in the name of Christ. Bro. Adams says: "In the name of means by the authority of, not any more, that joke is being played out, it's a real tragedy that so many souls had to die under such nonsense" (Page 2 of his July 10, 2000 paper). Bro. Adams, you are the one that talks nonsense. Please tell us, is the name of Christ the Word of Christ (Rev. 19:13)? If the name of Christ is the word of Christ, and Rev. 19:13 proves it is, then answer this question: Is the word of Christ the authority of Christ? Everyone who reads this material will know who is talking the nonsense. Tell us Bro. Adams, is the word of God a "joke"? The passages I used prove the word of Christ is the name of Christ. The word of Christ is the authority of Christ.
On Page 2 Bro. Adams asked: "Is the apostles doctrine all we need to lead us into the True Church of Christ as it was established at Jerusalem"? A few lines down he said: "There is not a baptism that can be performed in the True Church of Christ in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost as it was given at Galilee". We respond by saying the Apostles' doctrine is all we need to lead us into the True Church of Christ. We just do not believe the Apostles' doctrine is different from the teaching of Christ, as he apparently does. Jesus is the truth (Jno. 14:16). The spirit guided the apostles into all truth (Jno. 16:13). Jesus is the Word (Jno. 1:1, 2). The apostles taught the Word of Christ. There is no difference in Mt. 28:19 and Acts 2:38. When preachers teach there is a contradiction they are false teachers. Such false teachers cause division and they should be "marked and avoided" (Rom. 16:17). Such teachers have erred from the truth (Jas. 5:19, 20) and need to be converted. I hope and pray that you will listen and repent of "this thy wickedness and pray God if perhaps the thought of your heart may be forgiven you" (Acts 8:22).
Bro. Adams quoted Malachi 3:6 "I am the Lord, I change not". It is amusing that he would quote this. He has Jesus changing from what He commanded the Apostles in Galilee (Mt. 28:19) to what he taught Peter, a few days later, on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). He not only has Jesus changing His teaching, but making a complete change in just a few days. He also has the Father and Holy Spirit changing too in just a few days, because Jesus taught what the Father gave Him (Jno. 12:49), and the Holy Spirit spoke only that which He heard the Father say (Jno. 16:13).
Bro. Adams says: "For approximately thirty five years that it took for Matthew to be inspired to write the book of Matthew, for that many years the Church prospered with thousands being added to it, Jews and Gentiles, what is wrong with the understanding of men today?" Bro. Adams it's your understanding that is the problem. You say Matthew became inspired to write the book of Matthew approximately thirty five years after Pentecost, and yet Matthew writes something contradictory to what Peter taught under inspiration on Pentecost. Bro. Adams, how could this be? How could Peter be inspired to teach one thing on Pentecost, and Matthew about thirty-five years later be inspired to teach the opposite, according to your doctrine? Why did the Holy Spirit bring to the remembrance of Matthew what Jesus taught some thirty-five years earlier??? Why did the Holy Spirit say there is one baptism in (Eph. 4:5), and inspire Matthew to recall the words of Jesus which He spake in Galilee some thirty-five years earlier??? You say, "Peter didn't preach Matthew 28:19 literally as it was spoken at Galilee to Israel, and neither to the Gentiles,&". If Peter did not preach Matthew 28:19 literally, how did he preach it? Did Peter practice (Mt. 28:19)? If he did not, was Jesus "with him alway even to the end of the world"? (Mt. 28:20) If Peter did not practice baptism in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit; he did not teach them to observe "all things" whatsoever Jesus commanded him. (Mt. 28:20). How could Jesus thus be with him? Bro. Adams, your false teachings puts you in a lot of trouble. You then said: "Let the Churches of Christ enjoy the unity that Jesus prayed that should exist within the Churches, and that will only happen when all men receive the apostles' doctrine". That can never be as long as you array the Apostles against Christ, and have Christ teaching one baptism and the Apostles another. You then said, on Page 3, "When you were baptized and heard the man tell you that he was baptizing you in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost for remission of your sins, remember that Jesus did not authorize this baptism into the Church. If the Lord chose not to bring Matthew 28:19 into the Church, can men do more than He"? Bro. Adams, if this were not so serious, what you are saying would be funny. Do you realize what you are saying? You are saying Jesus taught one baptism in Mt. 28:19 and Peter taught another baptism in Acts 2:38. Please answer the following questions: Did Peter teach the doctrine of Christ when he taught another baptism from the one Christ taught, according to what you contend? Of course, the truth is Peter taught and practiced exactly what Jesus taught in Mt. 28:19. They, along with others, went into all the world and did just exactly what Jesus taught them to do. If Jesus did not authorize the baptism of Mt. 28:19 in the church, where did He authorize it? When was His teaching followed? He did His teaching in Mt. 28:19 just a few days before Pentecost. When did Peter and the other Apostles go teach all nations baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost? Come on, tell all these people to whom you are sending your material. Why don't you be honest with them and tell them how you really feel. Tell them the Apostles never practiced what Jesus taught in Mt. 28:19. Tell your readers that the Apostles taught and practiced another baptism from the one Jesus told them to teach and practice.
On Page 3, Bro. Adams says he will prove his teaching from the prophets of the Old Testament. He cites Isa. 2:2-3 and Jer. 31:31-33 to show the word of the Lord would go forth from Jerusalem. How this proves his position is beyond me!!! I agree that the New Testament did not go into force until Christ died (Heb. 9:16,17). I also agree that the law of Moses was in force until Christ died (Col. 2:14; Eph. 2:15). However, I do not agree that Jesus was teaching the law of Moses in Mt. 28:19. Jesus told the Apostles to make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Jesus promised He would be with them if they did what He commanded them to do (Mt. 28:20). Jesus was with them, therefore, I know they did what He told them to do. Now, Bro. Adams, when did they do what He told them to do? It was only a few days before Pentecost when He told them to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost. I believe they did this, beginning on the day of Pentecost. Will you please tell us if and when they did what Jesus told them to do? You say the doctrine of Christ in Mt. 28:19 "has been very wrong for many years and the majority of the world has followed after the cunning craftiness of men who has deceived the world". Bro. Adams, this borders on blasphemy if indeed that is not what it is. Is this teaching the "cunning craftiness" of Jesus Christ? Has Jesus Christ deceived the whole world? You must tell us when the Apostles did what Jesus told them to do, and they only had a few days to do it, or else you must admit to accusing Jesus of "cunning craftiness" which has deceived the whole world. If not, please tell us why not!!!
In the last paragraph, on page 3, you accuse us of taking Jno. 14:26; John 16:13; and John 17:20 out of their place, then you say: "The comforter will have no part in bringing the Church into the world as long as men reject the commandments of the apostles and go back to Galilee for the name to be applied to baptism". It would be interesting for you to show us how we take those passages out of their place. According to your statement, which I quoted, the Comforter did not bring the church into the world until you came along with your teaching. The Apostles did not teach what you are teaching. The first people I heard of teach what you are teaching is the "Jesus only people". Did the Comforter bring the church into existence when they came along teaching what you teach? Why don't you join them? I ask you, who was it in Galilee that told the Apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost? According to you the Comforter could not bring the church into existence if they taught and practiced what Jesus told them to teach and practice. I thought Jesus was the one who brought the church into existence (Mt. 16:18). I did not know the Holy Spirit did it. Also your statement "the name to be applied to baptism" shows you think there is a formula of words to be said when baptizing someone. This is the same thing "Jesus only" people teach. Show us the Scripture that tells you what to say when you baptize someone. Every passage tells us what to do. Not one tells us what to say. Bro. Adams, false teaching will really get you into trouble in more ways than one.

Windell Wiser
16334 Evans Rd.
Athens, Al. 35611

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